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December 2013 UGC NET Paper I Answer Keys are Available

 

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1. The post-industrial society is designated as

(A) Information society

(B) Technology society

(C) Mediated society

(D) Non-agricultural society

Answer: (A)

 

2. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for

(A) Commercial communication

(B) Military purposes

(C) Personal interaction

(D) Political campaigns

Answer: (B)

 

3. Internal communication within institutions done through

(A) LAN

(B) WAN

(C) EBB

(D) MMS

Answer: (A)

 

4. Virtual reality provides

(A) Sharp pictures

(B) Individual audio

(C) Participatory experience

(D) Preview of new films

Answer: (C)

 

5. The first virtual university of India

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (B)

 

6. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:

(i) Limits to Growth

ii) Silent Spring

(iii) Our Common Future

(iv) Resourceful Earth

Codes:

(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (D)

 

7. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?

(A) Africa

(B) Asia

(C) South America

(D) North America

Answer: (A)

 

8. "Women are closer to nature than men." What kind of perspective is this?

(A) Realist

(B) Essentialist

(C) Feminist

(D) Deep ecology

Answer: (C)

 

9. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?

(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.

(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.

(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures; moisture content and reflectivity.

(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.

Answer: (D)

 

10. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the following:

(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach

(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach

(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach

(D) Watershed Development Approach

Answer: (A)

 

11. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is

(A) Thermal power sector

(B) Transport sector

(C) Industrial sector

(D) Domestic sector

Answer: (B)

 

12. ln a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of

(A) Methane

(B) Hydrogen

(C) LPG

(D) CNG

Answer: (B)

 

13. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?

(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)

(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)

(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Answer: (A)

 

14. Which of the following statements 'are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council?

It is an autonomous institution.

It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.

It is located in Delhi.

It has regional offices.

Select the correct answer from the codes given beiow:

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1 and 2

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (B)

 

15. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its

(A) Advisory Jurisdiction

(B) Appellate Jurisdiction

(C) Original Jurisdiction

(D) Writ Jurisdiction

Answer: (C)

 

16. Which of the following statements are correct?

There are seven Union Territories in India.

Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies

One Union Territory has a High Court.

One Union Territory is, the capital of two States.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

 

17. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?

The Central Information Commission is a statutory body

The chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the president of India.

The Commission can impose a penalty. upto a maximum  of Rs 25,000

It can punish an errant officer.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (C)

 

18. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN _ The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States?

(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)

(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)

(C) CNN and IBN

(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu

Answer: (A)

 

19. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEIGT. The code of CHILDREN will be

(A) EKNJFTGP

(B) EJKNFTGP

(C) KNJFGTP

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

 

20. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7/- whereas that of mango is Rs 5/-

If the person has Rs38, the number of apples he can buy is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer: (D)

 

21. A man pointing to a lady said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife," The lady is related to the man as

(A) Mother's sister

(B) Grand mother

(C) Mother-in-law

(D) Sister of Father-in-law

Answer: (D)

 

22. In this series 6, 4, 1,2,2,8, 7,4,2,1,5,3,8,6,2,2,7,1,4,1,3,5,8,6,2,2,7,1,4,1,3,5,8,6

How many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 8

Answer: (B)

 

23. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65; The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is

(A) 85

(B) 60

(C) 70

(D) 65

Answer: (A)

 

24. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is

(A) 6 years

(B) 8 years

(C) 12 years

(D) 16 years

Answer: (C)

 

25. Which of the following is a social network?

(A) amazon.com

(B) eBay

(C) gmail.com

(D) Twitter

Answer: (D)

 

26. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as

(A) Universe

(B) Inference

(C) Sampling design

(D) Statistics

Answer: (D)

 

27. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should

(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.

(B) punish those causing disturbance

(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance

(D) not bother of what is happening in the class

Answer: (A)

 

28. Effective teaching is a function of

(A) Teacher's satisfaction.

(B) Teacher's honesty and commitment'

(C) Teacher's making students learn and understand

(D) Teacher's liking for professional excellence.

Answer: (C)

 

29. The most appropriate meaning of learning is

(A) Acquisition of-skills

(B) Modification of behaviour

(C) Personal adjustment

(D) Inculcation of knowledge

Answer: (B)

 

30. Analyse the following teaching process in order:

(i) Relate the Present knowledge with Previous one

(ii) Evaluation

(iii) Reteaching

(iv) Formulating instructional objectives

(v) Presentation of instructional materials

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)

(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)

Answer: (D)

 

31. CIET stands for

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology

(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology

(C) Central Institute for Education Technology

(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.

Answer: (C)

 

32. Teacher's role at higher education

(A) provide information to students.

(B) promote self learning in students.

(C) encourage healthy competition among students.

(D) help students to solve their problems.

Answer: (A)

 

33. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by

(A) German Social scientists

(B) American philosophers

(C) British Academicians

(D) Italian political Analysts

Answer: (A)

 

34. The sequential operations in scientific research are

(A) Co-vaiation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation

(B) Generalisation, Co_variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations

(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation

(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.

Answer: (C)

 

35. In sampling, the lottery method is used for

(A) Interpretation

(B) Theorisation

(C) Conceptualisation

(D) Randomisation

Answer: (D)

 

36. In communication myths have power but are

(A) uncultural

(B) insignificant

(C) irnPrecise

(D) unPrefered

Answer: (C)

 

37. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was

(A) Samachar

(B) API

(C) Hindustan Samachar

(D) Samachar Bharati

Answer: (C)

 

38. Organisational  communication can be equated with

(A) intra-personal communication

(B) inter personal communication

(C) group communication

(D) mass comrnunication

Answer: (C)

 

39. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other' the relationship  between them is called

(A) Contradictory

(B) Contrary

(C) Sub-contrary

(D) Sub-alteration

Answer: (A)

 

40. Ananaya nad Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?

(A) Archana

(B) Bulbul

(C) Ananya

(D) Krishna

Answer: (C)

 

41. A stipulative definition may be said to be

(A) Always true

(B) Always false

(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false

(D) Neither true nor false

Answer: (D)

 

42. When the conclusion of  an argument  follows  from its premise/premises

Conclusively, the argument is called

(A) Circular argument

(B) Inductive argument

(C) Deductive argument

(D) Analogical argument

Answer: (C)

 

43. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the sun as the Earth does. So those. planets are inhabited by various  orders of creatures as the earth is

What type of argument is contained in the above passage ? ,

(A) Deductive

(B) Astrological

(C) Analogical

(D) Mathematical

Answer: (A)

 

44. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.

Premises:

(i) All saints are religious. (major)

(ii) Some honest persons are saints.(minor)

Codes

(A) All saints are honest

(B) Some saints are honest.

(C) All religious persons are honest

(D) Some honest persons are religious.

Answer: (B)

 

45. Which is the main objective of research?

(A) To review the literature

(B) To summarize what is already known

(C) To get an academic degree

(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

Answer: (D)

 

46. sampling error decreases with the

(A) decrease in sample size

(B) increase in sample size

(C) Process of randomization

(D) process of analysis

Answer: (B)

 

47. The Principles of fundamental research  are used in 

(A) action research

(B) applied research

(C) Philosophical research

(D) historical  research

Answer: (A)

 

48. Users  who use media for their own  ends are identified as

(A) Passive audience

(B) Active Audience

(C) Positive Audience

(D) Negative audience

Answer: (B)

 

49. Classroom communication can be described as

(A) Exploration

(B) Institutionalisation

(C) Unsignified narration

(D) Discourse

Answer: (A)

 

50. Ideological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions

(B) Perceptions

(C) Consumptions

(D) Creations

Answer: (B)

 

51. Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the'world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 51 to 55 based on this table.

 

Region

 

Number of Foreign Tourist Arrival

2007

2008

2009

Western Europe

1686083

1799525

1610086

North America

1007276

1027297

1024469

South Asia

982428

1051846

982633

South East Asia

303475

332925

348495

East Asia

352037

355230

318292

West Asia

171661

215542

201110

Total FTAs in India

5081504

5282603

5108579

 

51. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(C) South Asia

(D) South East Asia

Answer: (B)

 

52. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009?

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(C) South Asia

(D) West Asia   

Answer: (A)

 

53. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.

(A) Western Europe

(B) South East Asia

(C) East Asia

(D) West Asia   

Answer: (C)

 

54. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(C) South Asia

(D) East Asia

Answer: (A)

 

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Replies to This Forum

sure Ans.12(B)

15. is original jurisdiction which means the matter is only under the jurisdiction of supreme court to adjudicate and can not be heard by any other court i.e. original jurisdiction.  Appellate Jurisdiction means matter heard in appeal. 

 

q no 6 ans is c

q no 14 ans is c

q no 12 ans is c

paper -2 LIBRARY SCIENCE

1-D

2-B

3-A

4-A

5-D

6-C

7-D

8-C

9-D

10-C

11-C

12-B

13-B

14-B

15-A

16-C

17-C

18-C

19-A

20-C

21-D

22-B

23-C

24-C

25-B

26-C

27-A

28-A

29-A

30-A

31-A

32-B

33-A

34-A

35-C

36-C

37-A

38-

39-B

40-C

41-A

42-D

43-B

44-A

45-B

46-D

47-B

48-C

49-D

50-B

PLZ Tell me right answer

Thank you, Most of your Answer is Right only check these question

7. C

13. A

17. D

32. A

Madam aapke answer key ke according mere 19 questions rght haitell me r u rght?

sir mere 30 answers thek ne.

thanks sir

question no. 22 and 51 answers are wrong 51-a,22-d plz check it.thanks

Q.No. 22 given by him is not the same as in question paper and the answer is (C) 6 .

6, 4, 1,2,2,8, 7, 4,2, 1, 5,3, 8,6, 2,2,7,1,4, 1,3,5, 8,6,

& 51 the answer given by him is correct. the A is more than 30%

dear mr you think about sequence 6-4=2,4-2=2,8-6=2,3-5=-2,8-6=2 there is onlry difference 2 only but not -2 so answer is B 

Hello, I think there is no question of (-) or (+) here. We just have to spot the no. of pairs having a difference of 2. So the correct answer will be (C).

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